• ChaoticNeutralCzech@feddit.org
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        6 days ago

        Not really, it’s a triangle. It asymptotically approaches the bell curve (aka the Gaussian distribution, which is infinitely long) at higher die counts but good luck nesting that many.

        • OfCourseNot@fedia.io
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          6 days ago

          Let da and db be the results in both d6 dice, the result for the d36 would be 6(da - 1) + db. This gives an equal chance of getting any number between 1 and 36, both included, eg da = 5; db = 5; gives d36 = 29 (which is prime).

            • OfCourseNot@fedia.io
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              4 days ago

              It’s just using the result of the dice roll as digits to compose a number in a base 6 positional numeral system.

              Maybe it’s not obvious because the formula above is already reduced. Digits in base six can only be 0-5, that’s why there’s a -1 in 6(da -1). Two digits would give us a result between 0-35, that’s why there’s no -1 subtracted from db, I already added 1 to make the range 1-36.

              You could use two different dice as well, like a d8 and a d6 to make a d48. Or three or more dice with the same number of faces, eg 3 d6 to make a d216 (they have to be distinguishable, in color, size, style…). For more than two different dice the math would get too messy to be practical, I reckon.

    • Ech@lemmy.ca
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      6 days ago

      Easy - if you roll a 2, flip a coin to decide if it’s 1 or 2.